While reading William Graham's Beyond the Written Word, I was left asking why and for what reasons was the Bible initially circulated in Greek and Latin. Even in medieval Europe, though many people were illiterate I feel that making the Bible inaccessible to 'Idiotae' just made things harder even if it did increased the papal authority of the church. Could one argue that the aural role of the Bible as described by Graham came into its modern form in part because of how it was used to spread Christian scripture in medieval Europe?
2 comments:
I think the bible initially circulated in Greek and Latin,because during the early centuries AD,the majority of Jews/the early Christians spoke and read in Greek and Latin.
Even apostle Paul's native tongue was Greek.
In addition, Latin was considered the language of the scholars and educated. Why even bother having the Bible translated in a country's native tongue if most people would not be able to read text regardless of the language it's printed in?
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